It depends entirely upon what you deem "sexual acts". If anal sex is a "sexual act" to you, then it constitutes a loss of virginity. If rubbing up against a girl is a "sexual act" in your opinion, then it constitutes a loss of virginity. I don't consider two people dirty dancing in a nightclub a sexual act, therefore, there is no loss of virginity. My grandmother, however, would probably think differently.

The standard definition of "virginity" is a "state of purity". An individual person decides for themselves how to implement a definition, but individual people do not decide what the definiton of a word is. You can apply "state of purity" however you want. If you don't consider anal sex a "sexual act" then, in your opinion, there is no loss of virginity. However, if anal sex is sexual to you, the there is most certainly a loss of virginity.

That's the stupidest thing I've ever heard. "Ain't" is a slang term that was recently added to the dictionary. It now has a set-in-stone definition. The term "virginity" already has a definiton. You can't just change the definition of the word to suit your personal needs. You can use the definiton however you wish, you can apply that definition in any way you see fit. But, you can't just say that the definiton of virginity is "hasn't had vaginal intercourse yet." The definiton of virginity is a "state of purity". If you consider a five-person gangbang with no vaginal penetration to not be a sexual act, then in your opinion, there is no loss of virginity. I, however, disagree with you, and would consider that to be a ridiculous opinion to have.